I have been woefully remiss in my blogging duties, for which I apologize to both my readers.

Here’s a philosophical question to ponder: does Aquinas’ statement in the S.Th. I, q1, art 1 “It was necessary for man’s salvation that there should be a knowledge revealed by God besides philosophical science built up by human reason” hold true when stated conversely: “It was necessary for man’s salvation that there should be philosophical science built up by human reason besides a knowledge revealed by God”?

Let me know in the combox.

About these ads